Page Summary
Active Entries
- 1: Photo cross-post
- 2: Interesting Links for 20-06-2025
- 3: Interesting Links for 19-06-2025
- 4: Interesting Links for 17-06-2025
- 5: Interesting Links for 16-06-2025
- 6: The advice in the UK over teachers and AI is baffling to me
- 7: Photo cross-post
- 8: Interesting Links for 30-05-2025
- 9: Interesting Links for 15-06-2025
- 10: Confused by Disney ineptitude
Style Credit
- Style: Neutral Good for Practicality by
Expand Cut Tags
No cut tags
no subject
Date: 2011-10-05 10:52 am (UTC)I'm now working in a nest of Bayesians and what it says about priors and posteriors makes a lot of sense to me. But maybe that's the indoctrination :-)
no subject
Date: 2011-10-05 11:28 am (UTC)In a legal situation (which is where this started) you might be feeding into your model a prior probability of guilt (or a prior probability of the blood sample being the defendants). Now obviously a competent statistician checks that the prior does not greatly affect the posterior. Nonetheless it could lead to some awkward situations. I agree that mathematically the whole situation makes sense -- indeed the mathematics is uncontroversial once the prior is asserted (OK, it can get rough and you need sampling but I'm 100% fine with that). However, I'm not at all comfortable with asserting an ex nihilo belief and then that being an important part of the model.
no subject
Date: 2011-10-05 01:06 pm (UTC)The prior, likelihood, posterior approach also explains why the same set of data can be taken as evidence for utterly different conclusions - eg. tea partyists and liberals. They're working from utterly different priors, which are there no matter what. Even if you're a frequentist.
no subject
Date: 2011-10-05 02:05 pm (UTC)Where did that get its prior? :-)
here there is good reason for a prior (a previous set of data for example), or where a variety of uniform priors don't affect the posterior, then I don't have a problem
Absolutely -- in a symmetrical situation (the ball is under one of three cups) a uniform prior is perfect.
They're working from utterly different priors, which are there no matter what. Even if you're a frequentist.
Sure -- but having different outcomes from the same set of data (depending on prior) would not happen in frequentist analysis (and, a good Bayesian would say that the conclusions are not meaningful unless there was a reason to prefer one prior).
no subject
Date: 2011-10-06 02:34 pm (UTC)http://telescoper.wordpress.com/2011/10/06/bayes-in-the-dock/#entry
no subject
Date: 2011-10-06 02:40 pm (UTC)My reading of the original redacted court document was that it was Bayesian statistics, not Bayes Theorem which the judge ruled against. The Guardian article muddies the water completely by using the two interchangably. The original court document is heavily redacted so it's unclear.
If the Prof you link to is right, it's a stupid ruling but I *think* he's working from the Guardian article not the court document. The rest of his column is interesting though.
no subject
Date: 2011-10-06 11:19 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2011-10-06 02:54 pm (UTC)