Political Question
Jan. 18th, 2011 12:35 pm![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png)
At the moment the House of Lords are debating the Parliamentary Voting System and Constituencies Bill.
I've heard numerous claims that this bill is incredibly unfair, and blatant gerrymandering by the Conservative Party.
Looking at the details, I'm feeling baffled. I can see a claim that the exemption for the three Scottish constituencies (Two Liberal Democrat, on Scottish National Party) are biased in their favour. But I can't see how a system whereby people are grouped together in what's going to be a massively arbitrary manner (each area must be within 5% of the national average, and are set up by independent bodies - the Boundary Commissions).
I don't really have a stake in this one - I'd just like someone to explain how this system would give an advantage to any one party. I can see that it could _remove_ advantage from a party if the old system with much less equal constituency sizes gave that party an advantage, but I'm totally failing to see how it's anything like gerrymandering.
Am I missing something obvious?
I've heard numerous claims that this bill is incredibly unfair, and blatant gerrymandering by the Conservative Party.
Looking at the details, I'm feeling baffled. I can see a claim that the exemption for the three Scottish constituencies (Two Liberal Democrat, on Scottish National Party) are biased in their favour. But I can't see how a system whereby people are grouped together in what's going to be a massively arbitrary manner (each area must be within 5% of the national average, and are set up by independent bodies - the Boundary Commissions).
I don't really have a stake in this one - I'd just like someone to explain how this system would give an advantage to any one party. I can see that it could _remove_ advantage from a party if the old system with much less equal constituency sizes gave that party an advantage, but I'm totally failing to see how it's anything like gerrymandering.
Am I missing something obvious?
no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:14 pm (UTC)And immigrants - from outside the EU, anyway - aren't allowed to vote in general elections.
no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:16 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:17 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:17 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:25 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:37 pm (UTC)That would make a kind of sense - *if* we could assume that the people who do register are an accurate representation of those who don't. I think the mere fact of them having registers makes that an inappropriate assumption. For a start, I know some (not many) people who refuse to register to vote because they object to the whole concept of parliamentary democracy. Their refusal is an active political gesture (in their eyes) and they would probably object to 'their vote' being distributed among the other people in their area who don't share their views.
Fundamentally, if your concern is that, for example, teenagers aren't being fairly represented because they don't register to vote, the solution to that *isn't* to count the votes of adults who live in an area with lots of teenagers. If poor people don't register, then counting the votes of rich people who live in poor areas as more important might actually end up further *dis*enfranchising them. And so on.
no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:33 pm (UTC)http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_of_foreigners_to_vote#United_Kingdom
The only thing they need to do is to put themselves on the Electoral Register.
no subject
Date: 2011-01-18 02:40 pm (UTC)