[personal profile] hutchingsmusic 2022-10-10 09:40 pm (UTC)(link)
Spices were definitely used to hide bad meat in the past (up to at least 1800?), by the upper classes who could afford them, and the lower classes just had to put up with bad meat.

Then the lower classes became able to afford spices too, and started using them.

*Then* the upper classes became able to get good meat reliably (thanks to refrigeration etc.) and I'm guessing here, but I think *not* using spice may have become a way to show off that you could get good quality meat that didn't require spices to mask the taste. So using spices would have been a sign of poverty, and serving unspiced food would have been a sign of affluence.
jducoeur: (Default)

[personal profile] jducoeur 2022-10-13 05:58 pm (UTC)(link)

Spices were definitely used to hide bad meat in the past (up to at least 1800?), by the upper classes who could afford them, and the lower classes just had to put up with bad meat.

Source? This gets repeated frequently, but I've never seen any real evidence for it, and most historical-cooking sources I've worked with dismiss it as made-up Victorian silliness. Certainly I've never seen a hint of it in any of the (many) period cookbooks I have in my library...